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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

16.06.2025 01:48

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Do you think Christine Lagarde will be headed and will be heading for success in the next French presidential elections starting as soon as 2027?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?